I posted previously about 2 weeks ago but unfortunately I still don’t have an exact answer. Can someone oblige?
Is this example flawed?
Part A
Assume A.......... I borrow Bank funds $200,000 with which to purchase units in HDT
Assume B.......... I am already in the top tax bracket.
Assume..... The writer is aware of all the benefits flowing from a HDT. I would rather not get this thread side tracked
1..... If I buy units costing $200,000 from a Hybrid trust this allows me certain interest tax deductions far superior to my non-working wife who could have borrowed from the Bank. She generates no income.
2..... 15 years later I sell the units back to the Trust at the same purchase price ie $200,000.
3..... My wife then buys the units at the same purchase price i.e. $200,000
The IP has risen significantly in value and the IP in the HDT is then sold the next day.
4..... Upon distribution of the capital gain, Her taxes are much lower than compared to mine would be for CGT,
if
I had owned the units and been given the capital gains.
Is this example flawed or OK?
Is there a minimum holding time as there is with property or shares that these units must be held to avoid any taxes?
Part B
IF I SELL THE UNITS BACK TO THE HDT DOES THIS TRIGGER A CAPITAL GAINS EVENT. IS THERE ANYTHING WRONG WITH BUYING AND SELLING AT THE SAME PRICE given the time span? Can I sell back for any figure I so choose? ie more or less?
Thanks in advance For your opinion
Is this example flawed?
Part A
Assume A.......... I borrow Bank funds $200,000 with which to purchase units in HDT
Assume B.......... I am already in the top tax bracket.
Assume..... The writer is aware of all the benefits flowing from a HDT. I would rather not get this thread side tracked
1..... If I buy units costing $200,000 from a Hybrid trust this allows me certain interest tax deductions far superior to my non-working wife who could have borrowed from the Bank. She generates no income.
2..... 15 years later I sell the units back to the Trust at the same purchase price ie $200,000.
3..... My wife then buys the units at the same purchase price i.e. $200,000
The IP has risen significantly in value and the IP in the HDT is then sold the next day.
4..... Upon distribution of the capital gain, Her taxes are much lower than compared to mine would be for CGT,
if
I had owned the units and been given the capital gains.
Is this example flawed or OK?
Is there a minimum holding time as there is with property or shares that these units must be held to avoid any taxes?
Part B
IF I SELL THE UNITS BACK TO THE HDT DOES THIS TRIGGER A CAPITAL GAINS EVENT. IS THERE ANYTHING WRONG WITH BUYING AND SELLING AT THE SAME PRICE given the time span? Can I sell back for any figure I so choose? ie more or less?
Thanks in advance For your opinion