Hi,
While I continue to try and understand the GFC, I keep reading how we are different here and one thing that keeps being reiterated is that we did not have subprime lending to the degree in the US.
While I agree with this could someone please correct me if what I state is wrong.
Subprime lending was to allow those that could not otherwise secure or afford a normal mortgage to become home owners.
Subprime lending was the result of government regulation to stop racial discrimination in lending, forcing banks to loan to people that they might have otherwise passed over.
Subprime lending was the last ditched effort by the mortgage industry to find new customers at any cost.
Subprime lending became a problem when asset prices started to fall.
First Home Buyers grant was established to help/assist those that otherwise could not afford to purchase property a helping hand - loaning to minority groups.
Most FHB purchase with high LVR's - can they really afford to purchase
FHB and others have participated in Low Doc Loans - again a tool that was initially valid is quickly manipulated to give money to those that cannot afford it if asset prices don't rise.
FHBG and subprime loans were the result of Government intervention in what is meant to be a free market.
If asset prices start to fall through reduced GDP and higher unemployment levels then isn't this the trigger that started the melt down in the US.
The only property market that seems to be growing is the FHB, if the grant is removed, this market will suffer the same fate as those markets above the magic $500,000 mark.
What will happen if IR returned to 7-8%, will those FHB be able to afford their mortgages?
So while they are not exactly the same I think the results will play out the same.
I wonder, if the FHBG did not exist would the current market conditions be different. I think the intentions of the FHBG are valid, unfortunately I think in the current global situation it is only getting those that can least afford it into a position that may be extremely difficult to maintain in the near future. I see that both the US and AUS markets/ governments have done what is necessary to milk the last ride of global asset growth geared by debt in property that simply got out of hand.
Why is it necessary for Governments to intervene in private industries (banking/ property) only when they going down the tube with grants and loans, a free market should be left to it own devises or do we not live in a free market.
Before I get flamed, I am simply asking for other peoples opinion on this matter. Yes, I own an IP and have just sold my PPOR and are renting and are neither a bull or a bear just someone who tries to be realistic with the current situation today and in the future.
Benjamin
While I continue to try and understand the GFC, I keep reading how we are different here and one thing that keeps being reiterated is that we did not have subprime lending to the degree in the US.
While I agree with this could someone please correct me if what I state is wrong.
Subprime lending was to allow those that could not otherwise secure or afford a normal mortgage to become home owners.
Subprime lending was the result of government regulation to stop racial discrimination in lending, forcing banks to loan to people that they might have otherwise passed over.
Subprime lending was the last ditched effort by the mortgage industry to find new customers at any cost.
Subprime lending became a problem when asset prices started to fall.
First Home Buyers grant was established to help/assist those that otherwise could not afford to purchase property a helping hand - loaning to minority groups.
Most FHB purchase with high LVR's - can they really afford to purchase
FHB and others have participated in Low Doc Loans - again a tool that was initially valid is quickly manipulated to give money to those that cannot afford it if asset prices don't rise.
FHBG and subprime loans were the result of Government intervention in what is meant to be a free market.
If asset prices start to fall through reduced GDP and higher unemployment levels then isn't this the trigger that started the melt down in the US.
The only property market that seems to be growing is the FHB, if the grant is removed, this market will suffer the same fate as those markets above the magic $500,000 mark.
What will happen if IR returned to 7-8%, will those FHB be able to afford their mortgages?
So while they are not exactly the same I think the results will play out the same.
I wonder, if the FHBG did not exist would the current market conditions be different. I think the intentions of the FHBG are valid, unfortunately I think in the current global situation it is only getting those that can least afford it into a position that may be extremely difficult to maintain in the near future. I see that both the US and AUS markets/ governments have done what is necessary to milk the last ride of global asset growth geared by debt in property that simply got out of hand.
Why is it necessary for Governments to intervene in private industries (banking/ property) only when they going down the tube with grants and loans, a free market should be left to it own devises or do we not live in a free market.
Before I get flamed, I am simply asking for other peoples opinion on this matter. Yes, I own an IP and have just sold my PPOR and are renting and are neither a bull or a bear just someone who tries to be realistic with the current situation today and in the future.
Benjamin