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Sorry, realised the other forum was less likely to have tax people in it and so maybe this was a better place to post.

Scenario (in Victoria) is this: 1. Seller is using a property as an investment and has paid land tax up until 31st December. 2. Buyer purchases the property to use as a Principal Place of Residence, and hence isn't subject to land tax. 3. Buyer is told he/she must pay the proportional land...

Thanks, that's what I was hoping. Didn't want it to get to settlement day and have the solicitor then ask "where's the Section 27?"?

Thanks. In this case the vendor does have a mortgage, so do I need to sign? With 3 days until settlement I would have thought my solicitor would be asking for it.

Not sure whether the vendor is an individual. I am paying the 'Proportional Tax' value based on single ownership, which is higher than the actual amount the vendor needs to pay. Probably then they have multiple properties? Yes I have agreed to pay these, but "as appropriate" - as land tax...

I'm approaching settlement on a property I've purchased. Early on I was sent a Section 27 statement (to release the deposit) but I did not sign, as I wanted the deposit money release at settlement not beforehand. Just wondering though - do I still need to sign this statement before...

I have recently purchased a house in Victoria and settlement is next week. The house is currently tenanted (i.e. the vendor has paid land tax) but the sale will be with vacant possession, and it will be my Principal Place of Residence (i.e. not subject to land tax). Up until now I have been...