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thanks for the feedback.

If it is not deemed 'tenants in common' & becomes 'joint tenancy' does that then mean you can choose who incurs the capital gains tax?

I'm hoping someone can shed alittle expert advice on this situation. If an IP that has two parties (family members) on the title and is written as tenants in common but without any mention of % division between the two parties, is it therefore legal to choose who incurs the CGT?