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Nathan, Yes, I am aware of the ''all monies clause'', but I think that there is still a difference between having all loans with one lender not x-coll vs. having all loans with one lender and x-coll. The next question then is in what situations has this ''all monies clause'' been enforced...

What about the situation of having several loans with one lender, but not formally X-colled? ie. each property loan is still secured by one property.

Hi there, Just wondering how many banks people use for all of their property loans? I'm particularly interested in hearing from those who have all their lending with one bank (with a few loans, not just one!), and any positive or negative experiences from this... Thanks.