Search results

BTW, I guess if was to re-fi after 1 year then the loan term for the original loan = 12mths & therefore all borrowing costs could be claimed in the first year?

Soo, if I were to buy a house On 1 July 2009 as an IP but then move in after 2 years (2 July 2011), would I end up only being able to claim 40% of these costs? Or does it have anything to do with the "term of the loan" as an IP loan? I will be performing this exact scenario except probably...