Search results

I stand corrected. Thanks guys. Have located relevant references in Cooper and tagged for a refresh :o I thought I made a mistake once but was wrong

Except for CGT purposes Y is taken to have acquired the X's interest in the year 2000 not the date of death. This allows Y to sell within a year and still obtain the CGT general discount. The date of death is irrelevant for post CGT assets. On death, CGT rules effectively give the beneficiary...

Not correct. See above post.

When you inherit an asset from a deceased estate as described you inherit that persons cost base too. So if it was bought jointly you just treat your half and double the CGT impact (since the other 50% will have same cost and date etc). example Bill and Betty buy a factory costing $300K in...