Search results

I appreciate your frustration, but seriously, do you mean that you want your gains to be calculated differently to everybody else's? On what basis? Because you didn't realise what the rules were and don't want to pay that much tax? :p I don't think that's going to fly, sorry. :o But good luck...

I'm sure you guys are right, I'm just curious about the logic (if there is any). I've had a read but I don't get it. Are you able to tell me what the difference is between the situations when you apportion gains by time (s118-185), and when you use a valuation (s118-192)? Is it about the...

No, the other way around. :D You want a low val now, so the capital growth is all during the period when it's your PPOR. ;) Then you want a high val when you move out and make it an IP again, to maximise the CGT-free growth.

If you've not had much growth whilst an IP, and could get a valuation now demonstrating that, do you have the option of using a valuation, or do you have to use time for calculations? If so, why? Why does the order (ie IP then PPOR rather than PPOR then IP) change the method of apportioning...

I'm with morg. You'll still be liable for CGT for the period when it was an IP, so how are you going to figure out how much of the gain is tax-free when you eventually sell, without a valuation?