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Does anyone *really* believe that the main reason underpinning a decision to capitalise interest is something other than tax minimisation?

For some of the posters that come and go through this forum, you'd probably be right. For some, a positively geared property appears to be a negative.

Terry can correct me if I'm wrong, but for the avoidance provisions to apply, the existance of a "scheme" as defined in 177(d) is required. The ATO ruling would appear to be making the observation that capitalised interest arrangements where the capitlisation occurs only while the...

Don't know about you, but I think the observations made in the ruling at 17 (e) and (f) are big news. It would be interesting to run a poll here to find out how many people runniging the int. capitalisation approach would fit neatly into those examples.