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Well this you would need to check with a suitably qualified family and tax lawyer I'm afraid. To be honest, I'd be surprised if you could do this - you really should have done the consent orders in a different way if you wanted this result.

Well I can't see how it would have any tax implications (although I'm not a tax lawyer/accountant). It really is like any other set of property settlement orders in the family court - the "rent" you talk about isn't really rent, its just a method for calculating your final lump sum payment...

Occasional family lawyer here. What sort of "agreement"? Consent orders lodged with the family court? Or something informal?