Low doc loans are used by self employed to borrow 60% of property value. Can these loans be used to buy when you have hit serviceability ceiling?
Say a couple go from two incomes to one, (thus the income is not sufficient to cover the current loans in the point of view of the bank) can they still buy if they have sizable deposit? (Probably from different bank?) If so, 40% deposit enough?
Say a couple go from two incomes to one, (thus the income is not sufficient to cover the current loans in the point of view of the bank) can they still buy if they have sizable deposit? (Probably from different bank?) If so, 40% deposit enough?