CGT and subdivision

Hi all. Just thinking about how any future CGT is proportioned when you subdivide and build.

EG with some rubbery figures.

Purchase price $400,000

New house built and subdivided and valued at completion $400,000
( actual total cost to sub and build is $200,000)

Existing house revalued at $380,000

What would you pay in tax if both sold for $700,000 each in 10 years time

Cheers.
 
Capital Gain = Capital Proceeds - Cost Base.
Capital Proceeds = $1.4m (2 x $700,000)
Capital Cost = $400,000 + $200,000 + holding costs = $600,000+

Capital gain = $800,000, taxed at your marginal rate.
 
Capital Gain = Capital Proceeds - Cost Base.
Capital Proceeds = $1.4m (2 x $700,000)
Capital Cost = $400,000 + $200,000 + holding costs = $600,000+

Capital gain = $800,000, taxed at your marginal rate.

So why is a valuation of both properties required at completion ?

Both will be rented by the way with original house rented since purchase.
 
A valuation at completion may be required for several reasons...

a) A bank valuation if you are going for a construction loan.
b) If you are using the margin scheme, to calculate the GST payable when you have completed the construction and want to rent out the property.
 
Aaron

If you claimed input tax credits along the way and the purpose changed then not sure why you would need valuation as a gst adjustment would be required but a valuation would not affect the gst adjustment.
 
Well I'm not sure how the OP intends to do it. If he is just doing it as a 'once off' thing then he won't need to pay GST on the sale of the properties anyway - so the margin scheme is a moot point.

However, if he does intend to undertake the project as an 'enterprise' (and hence claim back GST credits on any purchase related to the development) then a valuation is indeed very important upon completion. Once he starts renting out the property after it is built, the property ceases to be a taxable supply and is input taxed instead. At that stage, a valuation is required to value the GST component of the new property that is now payable to the government (possibly using the margin scheme).
 
Read division 129 of the gst act this is not how gst adjustments work. The margin scheme only applies on sale not to a change of creditable purpose

Gst will be applicable is he sells these new properties within 5 years of completion
 
I disagree just because he is doing a once off development doesnt mean gst wont apply. You need to consider the 5 year rule for new residential premises. At any rate the advice you have given re a valuation and division 129 adjustments is not correct.
 
I never gave advice on Division 129 adjustments. He asked why a valuation would be necessary - and I've told him that it's most commonly for bank finance (whether it's a commercial development or not). In the absence of more information there's no need to go into whether his purpose has changed/remained the same. That's where his tax lawyer comes into play. But you are right about the margin-scheme only applying to sales - my mistake.
 
Aaron

These sort of things annoy me because you said in your post that he needs a valuation not only for a bank valuation but also to calculate gst payable using the margin scheme when he sold the property and he instead started renting them out. It is point 2 that is wrong.

Just admit you are wrong. Nothing wrong with that. You arent experienced in tax law and i wouldnt expect you to. Covering up your errors by stating you didnt say something you did is poor form. I am asuming you are young as young people in business frequently do this rather than putting up their hand and saying " hey guys oops made a mistake"
 
I will be renting both long term. No special structuring re GTS.

I ask because my accountant made a passing comment that I need valuations.

I was going to anyway as I'm sure they will be needed to separate the security of both properties.

Just wondering why my accountant wants them.

Cheers
 
Back
Top