Not me but on behalf of a family member..
Situation as follows:
Currently own PPOR outright although there is a small redraw still available on fully paid off mortgage.
Recently purchased an IP at auction, currently in settlement period.
5% deposit on exchange of IP contracts was paid by redrawing PPOR and writing a bank cheque direct from the loan. Sounds ok to me, only money drawn against PPOR is for 'purpose' of IP deposit and cheque written direct from loan account so interest fully dedcutible.
There is not enough in the PPOR redraw to finance the 15% balance of deposit and costs as mortgage on PPOR was only very small to start with.
Lender (ING), has proposed the following, Re-finance/Re-val PPOR to allow the full IP 20% deposit +costs to be drawn from it. Borrow 80% of IP value against itself. easy... Where I get worried is the lender is talking about using one product with split loans (for better rate), one for re-financed PPOR and one for the IP. Lender is adamant that the IP and PPOR won't be crossed collaterised even though they are 'splits' under the same loan product. Does this sound right? What else can be asked to confirm they are not crossed?
Also, with regards to the current 5% drawn from the PPOR to pay the deposit, once this property is re-financed and transferred to the new package are there any complications with ensuring the full 20% +costs fits the purpose tests and interest remains deductible. i.e if refinancing onto a new product essentially means paying out existing loan with new borrowed funds and then redrawing again rather than just topping up the loan is it making it messy and losing 'purpose' traceability?
Thanks in advance, appreciate some advice on this.
Situation as follows:
Currently own PPOR outright although there is a small redraw still available on fully paid off mortgage.
Recently purchased an IP at auction, currently in settlement period.
5% deposit on exchange of IP contracts was paid by redrawing PPOR and writing a bank cheque direct from the loan. Sounds ok to me, only money drawn against PPOR is for 'purpose' of IP deposit and cheque written direct from loan account so interest fully dedcutible.
There is not enough in the PPOR redraw to finance the 15% balance of deposit and costs as mortgage on PPOR was only very small to start with.
Lender (ING), has proposed the following, Re-finance/Re-val PPOR to allow the full IP 20% deposit +costs to be drawn from it. Borrow 80% of IP value against itself. easy... Where I get worried is the lender is talking about using one product with split loans (for better rate), one for re-financed PPOR and one for the IP. Lender is adamant that the IP and PPOR won't be crossed collaterised even though they are 'splits' under the same loan product. Does this sound right? What else can be asked to confirm they are not crossed?
Also, with regards to the current 5% drawn from the PPOR to pay the deposit, once this property is re-financed and transferred to the new package are there any complications with ensuring the full 20% +costs fits the purpose tests and interest remains deductible. i.e if refinancing onto a new product essentially means paying out existing loan with new borrowed funds and then redrawing again rather than just topping up the loan is it making it messy and losing 'purpose' traceability?
Thanks in advance, appreciate some advice on this.