Hi all,
Can anyone comment on this? Since reading this forum, I developed the opinion that if you paid for educational material on financial matters (eg.books on real estate or shares, or journals, the AFR etc) with even just the intention of being an investor, then you could claim these expenses as a tax deduction (keeping receipts as proof). That is, you don't need to own shares or property yet, but just have the intention of doing so.
But today I was reading through this month's edition of "Personal Investor". They have an article with tips about tax deductions. Under the title of "Managed funds & capital gains" there is a sub-title "financial journals" (p.44). They then write:
"You may be able to claim a deductions for publications such as "Shares" magazine or "Personal Investor" but you have to show that there is a link between your income earning investments and the publications. Brass says that the deducatibility of share investment subsciptions to investment information services applies more to a share trader than a share investor."
(Brass is an accountant providing opinions for this article.)
Is this correct? Do you have to already have "income earning investments" to claim the deduction, or am I reading this incorrectly?
CHeers
John
Can anyone comment on this? Since reading this forum, I developed the opinion that if you paid for educational material on financial matters (eg.books on real estate or shares, or journals, the AFR etc) with even just the intention of being an investor, then you could claim these expenses as a tax deduction (keeping receipts as proof). That is, you don't need to own shares or property yet, but just have the intention of doing so.
But today I was reading through this month's edition of "Personal Investor". They have an article with tips about tax deductions. Under the title of "Managed funds & capital gains" there is a sub-title "financial journals" (p.44). They then write:
"You may be able to claim a deductions for publications such as "Shares" magazine or "Personal Investor" but you have to show that there is a link between your income earning investments and the publications. Brass says that the deducatibility of share investment subsciptions to investment information services applies more to a share trader than a share investor."
(Brass is an accountant providing opinions for this article.)
Is this correct? Do you have to already have "income earning investments" to claim the deduction, or am I reading this incorrectly?
CHeers
John