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From: Mike .
How do I get at that equity?
From: Owen
Date: 6/15/00
Time: 12:38:31 PM
Hi All,
There is a question I have been unable to get an answer for even though I have read just about every entry in this forum. It is how do you realise the equity in a property if the gurus say an IP must be +ve not -ve, keep below 80% LVR and don't cross collateralise (the investment must stand alone). Let me give you an example. Note this example doesn't use real figures, just examples to explain the concept I'm trying to get a handle on. Here goes.
Say I have an IP (IP1) I bought for $100k. I borrowed $80k IO loan for 5 years @ 8% = $6400 pa = $125 pw. Luckily my rent is exactly $125 pw so the property is neutral (no extras included in this example). I have managed a huge 25% growth in the 1 year I've owned it (I wish!!!) so it is now worth $125k. I've found another property (IP2) that I want to purchase. It also costs $100k and to keep the LVR to 80% I can only borrow $80k. This means a $20k deposit, which I don't have. Luckily I have an IP with $20k equity in it.
My question is how do I get this equity out without breaking any of the guru rules above? Below is how I am thinking it could work.
Option 1 : I could get a second mortgage on IP1 (can't refinance because it's IO) for $20k which maintains the 80% LVR however no bank will loan me this amount IO so my interest payments will go up significantly. In addition to this the rent hasn't grown (isn't it always the way) so now IP1 will be -ve. Rule 1 broken.
Option 2 : Borrow 100% for IP2 with $20k secured on IP1. This means IP2 will be -ve and cross collaterised breaking 2 rules.
Option 3 : If I did have $20k cash and used this as a deposit, it locks it up until the properties go significantly +ve through rent increases and I can pay myself back. I can't borrow the new equity because I may have had that $20k set aside for something personal so the interest would not be deductable and anyway, borrowing creates the same problem as above.
The example above could be multiplied out too. Say I have 5 IP's with $10k equity in each and what to buy IP6. I have $50k equity available but would have to cross collaterise to get at it and it could force all the IP's to -ve gearing.
Can the forum please reply with their collective wisdom and help me get my mind around how I approach this. My reality is I have 1 IP -ve geared and are looking at IP2 and need to know how to buy it (large deposit or small) with the goal to buy many more following the same strategy (high yield, +ve geared, stand alone). This one of the last things I need to get sorted out in my own mind before moving forward so all help would be welcome. Thanks.
Owen
How do I get at that equity?
From: Owen
Date: 6/15/00
Time: 12:38:31 PM
Hi All,
There is a question I have been unable to get an answer for even though I have read just about every entry in this forum. It is how do you realise the equity in a property if the gurus say an IP must be +ve not -ve, keep below 80% LVR and don't cross collateralise (the investment must stand alone). Let me give you an example. Note this example doesn't use real figures, just examples to explain the concept I'm trying to get a handle on. Here goes.
Say I have an IP (IP1) I bought for $100k. I borrowed $80k IO loan for 5 years @ 8% = $6400 pa = $125 pw. Luckily my rent is exactly $125 pw so the property is neutral (no extras included in this example). I have managed a huge 25% growth in the 1 year I've owned it (I wish!!!) so it is now worth $125k. I've found another property (IP2) that I want to purchase. It also costs $100k and to keep the LVR to 80% I can only borrow $80k. This means a $20k deposit, which I don't have. Luckily I have an IP with $20k equity in it.
My question is how do I get this equity out without breaking any of the guru rules above? Below is how I am thinking it could work.
Option 1 : I could get a second mortgage on IP1 (can't refinance because it's IO) for $20k which maintains the 80% LVR however no bank will loan me this amount IO so my interest payments will go up significantly. In addition to this the rent hasn't grown (isn't it always the way) so now IP1 will be -ve. Rule 1 broken.
Option 2 : Borrow 100% for IP2 with $20k secured on IP1. This means IP2 will be -ve and cross collaterised breaking 2 rules.
Option 3 : If I did have $20k cash and used this as a deposit, it locks it up until the properties go significantly +ve through rent increases and I can pay myself back. I can't borrow the new equity because I may have had that $20k set aside for something personal so the interest would not be deductable and anyway, borrowing creates the same problem as above.
The example above could be multiplied out too. Say I have 5 IP's with $10k equity in each and what to buy IP6. I have $50k equity available but would have to cross collaterise to get at it and it could force all the IP's to -ve gearing.
Can the forum please reply with their collective wisdom and help me get my mind around how I approach this. My reality is I have 1 IP -ve geared and are looking at IP2 and need to know how to buy it (large deposit or small) with the goal to buy many more following the same strategy (high yield, +ve geared, stand alone). This one of the last things I need to get sorted out in my own mind before moving forward so all help would be welcome. Thanks.
Owen
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