OK, so a bit of a newb mistake; the house we just sold was wife's PPOR from purchase (1999) until 2002. From 2002 until now, it's been a rental. Obviously, we can apportion the CG to reduce the CGT, but at the time we didn't get a valuation. Live and learn - we certainly didn't know to do this at the time.
So my question is: how do I find/calculate the value in 2002? I have obtained an RPdata free report for the suburb, but a couple of issues; it only goes back to 2005, and the median price value itself isn't particularly useful. Can I calculate the growth rate from now to 2005 then extrapolate back to 1999, and then work out the 2002 value where they intercept?
Surely I'm not the first to come up with this scenario - but my (Google) searching hasn't returned any decent results.
Thanks.
So my question is: how do I find/calculate the value in 2002? I have obtained an RPdata free report for the suburb, but a couple of issues; it only goes back to 2005, and the median price value itself isn't particularly useful. Can I calculate the growth rate from now to 2005 then extrapolate back to 1999, and then work out the 2002 value where they intercept?
Surely I'm not the first to come up with this scenario - but my (Google) searching hasn't returned any decent results.
Thanks.