Interest on Interest and Capitalising Interest - the Facts

Hi all

Ok lets put some numbers to this and see what your thoughts are Accountant indicates this set up does not need to be paid.

Equity in PPOR say $100,000 used for investment purposes

Loan on IP purchase $200,000 80% LVR ($40,000 deposit) from PPOR Equity / Balance ($60,000)

Ok sell IP

$220,000 pay CGT >12mths

Pay loan out $160,000

remaining after costs etc say $50,000 This can be used for whatever the $40,000 from LOC according to accountant is never has to be paid back.

Cheers
BC
 
G'day BC,

remaining after costs etc say $50,000 This can be used for whatever the $40,000 from LOC according to accountant is never has to be paid back.
As a "reasonable man", I would think that this implies that the $40k HAS been paid back, then borrowed again as a Personal borrowing. As such, the loan would no longer be deductable. You may not PHYSICALLY pay it back, but the Interest on that $40k would remain a Personal expense IMHO.

I'd be interested to hear if I am NOT correct,

Regards,
 
Hi Les

Yes i understand your point but isn't it the PURPOSE of the Loan and not the Security.

So if the Security is sold the purpose of the loan is to invest if you keep investing with this account (LOC) the its still deductible.

If you sold the property and only got the loan amount (160,000) you would still have the LOC 40,000 outstanding and no security.

Cheers
BC
 
G'day BC,

BoneCrusher said:
Yes i understand your point but isn't it the PURPOSE of the Loan and not the Security.
Exactly right, BC. So are you going to take the remaining $40k and INVEST it in shares? I didn't get that impression from your earlier post.

BoneCrusher said:
remaining after costs etc say $50,000 This can be used for whatever the $40,000 from LOC according to accountant is never has to be paid back.
Once more, as a reasonable man, I think you are stretching it to think you can spend it however, yet still claim a Tax deduction.

To quote Robert Kiyosaki (almost) "It is so easy to make money legally - why would one want to make money illegally?" - or words to that effect.

Or am I still missing something here?

Regards,
 
I have similar questions as Ausprop but instead of an LOC account I have a transaction account, and a visa card. Both are solely used for the IP only.

The rent goes into and costs come out of this account. The IP is held in a HDT.


Using Ausprops quote:cool: slightly altered to my senario.

so... the practicalities of this thing. I built a home and I had to lend some cash to it to make it work, paying for little bits and pieces. It was completed using some personal funds, then I have the final loan draw down deposited into this account and then used these funds to pay off visa card purchases (tiles, blinds) and to reimburse myself for personal funds used to buy carpets.

So for example

1) I need to purchase tiles and blinds. Can I pay for these on the credit card and then transfer from the transaction account to the credit card?

and say for example

2) I paid out $5000 for some carpets during construction from my own personal account, can I reimburse myself for this? i.e. transfer from the transaction account to my account?

Regards

Regrow

I was told its ok to reimburse personal a/c from IP a/c as long as the transactions are shown going out of personal a/c & being reimbursed from ip a/c - with appropriate records of the items purchased being held as evidence the intial outlay was for the IP?

Cheers
Stella
 
I have been reading this topic with great interest and I have a question about what to do with rental income if my PPOR loan does not an offset account.

Here's the scenario ..

- A PPOR loan that has a redraw facility (where my salary goes into). Note that this type of loan does not come with an offset account.
- An Equity Access loan (is this the same as LOC?) secured against PPOR that is used to pay expenses for an IP
- A IP loan with an offset account linked to it
- Interest for the Equity Access loan is paid from PPOR loan redraw by direct debit

Can I put my rental income (that I get from my ppty mgr) straight into the PPOR loan as this will reduce my loan for a while ?
Or do I need to put the rental income into either the Equity Access loan or to the offset account linked to the IP ?

Thanks in advance ?
 
Can I put my rental income (that I get from my ppty mgr) straight into the PPOR loan as this will reduce my loan for a while ?
Or do I need to put the rental income into either the Equity Access loan or to the offset account linked to the IP ?

By putting your rental income into your PPOR loan you will reduce your non tax deductable loan quicker. You could then capitalise the interest payable on your LOC plus also the IP expenses within your LOC as that loan is tax deductable because its used purely for income producing investment purposes.

Points to note: Make sure with your LOC loan conditions they dont require you to make any interest payments until you reach your LOC credit limit. Make sure you have sufficient LOC funds available to allow you to capitalise for a reasonable time period.

Hope this helps.
 
per this post http://www.somersoft.com/forums/showthread.php?t=36853 it would be easy for the ATO to say you are operating a contrived scheme to gain a tax benefit, yet recently I read a finance dude suggesting somehthing to the effect of: with a share margin loan to prepay the interest from a IP LOC, claim a tax deduction and pay the dividends against your PPOR. Is this a case of property investors copping a hard wrap?
 
So does that mean that capitalising interest (when you can afford to pay it) is a highly risky practice that might put you in hot water with the ATO ?

Clearly this hasn't been really tested yet by the ATO in court (besides Hart's case which is a totally different scenario) but it seems like many investors here could get burnt esp if any ruling is retrospective !
 
So does that mean that capitalising interest (when you can afford to pay it) is a highly risky practice that might put you in hot water with the ATO ?

Clearly this hasn't been really tested yet by the ATO in court (besides Hart's case which is a totally different scenario) but it seems like many investors here could get burnt esp if any ruling is retrospective !

Exactly and therein lays the risk.;)

Thankfully I don’t have PPOR debt any more but I can understand the opportunity to reduce bad debt makes these setups tempting but please consider the risk.....

Whilst I don’t fully understand this thread I do know in the past, these technically legal, loop holes have been closed when the ATO realises the amount being lost as the populous comes on board.

For instance I remember:

In late 1990's a friend with US connections telling how he could earn $100k plus in AUS and paid no tax via a holding company in the Bahamas and paying everything via credit card. Last year this setup was blown open by the ATO and many serious big wigs have court cases pending.

The early 2000's saw one of the banks (Westpac?) come up with a loan structure where the IP rent got paid off your PPOR and they capitalised the interest on your IP. Debt stays the same level but became all IP and hence tax deductible. This was debated her on SS and was legit. But the ride lasted 18 months until the ATO ruled invalid and those who did it got a nice audit for the privilege (as reported).

Recently the Hybrid Discretionary Trust was promoted including some authors with titles like “legally reduce your tax". Allow to Neg Gear via Trust, all the gain with out the pain. Many here took it up and now the ATO has made a few noises saying this may not be kosher and most conservative accountants and some IP gurus don’t recommend this structure. I think the jury is still out on the final ruling?

These three are in my time. Prior to my investing career there was some tax scheme called “Bottom of the Harbour”. I don’t know the details there but it was closed with much fanfare.

So my point is: there are legal, technical, loopholes in the tax system that you can use to provide a significant above average rebate. However please be mindful that history has shown that if too generous they will be targeted and closed. Just consider that when capitalising interest as it is likely by say 2009/10 it would be closed and the ATO may have an unhealthy interest in your affairs.:eek:

This is not to be negative but advise caution. A future change may not be a concern and the gain may well outweigh the cost of restructure or audit fees, assuming no penalty.

However, any audit is black and white. My Company was random audited by NSW Workcover. They went back five years, assessed income and payments worth well over $1.5M and I had to provide all the documents and receipts and stat decs to prove my position. In accountant fee alone it cost $1000. In time lost to documentation who knows? Probably a week in total time over the process which went on for almost a year. In the end all they found was I had under claimed my personal wages $1k in one year (no the don’t count over claimed in next year as credit) and that meant an underpayment of around $20 which incurred a fine of (wait for it) $9! In the end the WC system would not allow me to pay the fine easily so they waived it if I simply paid the $20. On the books WC found an error and kept another employer honest. :rolleyes:For me it took a year, $1k in accountant fee and a loss of $2k in my consulting fee lost to it and a hell of a lot of stress. :mad:

So I certainly would not want to be cleared by the ATO on the cap interest only to be fined for other technicality such as not having full and correct doc receipts or one too many IP related travel claims. I assume tax audit would make the one above look like a trip to Disneyland.

Again I have not read all of this and I respect the opinion of Corsa (thread starter) as a person of intelligence and expertise in the area of IP. It may be worthwhile but I advise caution as it is you, not the accountant who advised you, that gets the rap when the ATO comes calling.

Regards, Peter 14.7
 
Everyone can debate this until the cows come home and at the end of the day it doesn't matter one bit whats discussed here or anywhere else for that matter.

The truth of the matter, its a relatively simple process to cover your behind prior, should you be planning to go down this route - Its called a 'private ruling'. :)

Thank you lines men, thank you ball boys.
 
Dear All

If your predominate purpose is to borrow money in the pursuit of income, and essentially your expense has been incurred in gaining or producing assessable income (per s8-1 ITAA36) then the tax office will not have a problem with capitalising interest on interest.

Where this connection cannot be made then that is the only area of contention; and it is not limited to just the practice of capitilising interest; it applies to all tax deductions.

You do not need to get a private ruling unless you think your circumstances are such that it is not clear whether it is deductible or not in your endevours to obtain income.

Thanks for all the kudos all.

Best Wishes

Corsa
 
Hi guys,

Does one have to draw down exact amounts, ($1500 interest / $100 PM - withdraw $1600 when due & pay directly from this account)… Or can this be done say, at the end of a month (just spent $1600, draw down $1600 ?)

If somoeone sets up an LOC today, can they draw down a larger amount for expense paid for over a few previous mths ?

Very new, very inexperienced
 
Tax Deductibility of Capitalised Interest Where No Non-Deductible Debt Involved

Where one has no non-deductible debt and a positive, neutral or negatively geared IP portfolio, and one wishes to use some/all of the rents to live off (essentially living on rent retirement/semi-retirement strategy) and capitalise investment property costs including bank interest charges via a line of credit or similar (including where the portfolio becomes no longer positively geared if it was at the outset), the tax deductibility status of capitalised interest in this scenario seems somewhat more certain - clear and dominant purpose is driven by personal financial affairs/lifestyle decisions and does not point to a scheme to reduce tax (Part IVA).

Opinions?

Sam
Comments are personal in nature and do not constitute advice.
 
Where one has no non-deductible debt and a positive, neutral or negatively geared IP portfolio, and one wishes to use some/all of the rents to live off (essentially living on rent retirement/semi-retirement strategy) and capitalise investment property costs including bank interest charges via a line of credit or similar (including where the portfolio becomes no longer positively geared if it was at the outset), the tax deductibility status of capitalised interest in this scenario seems somewhat more certain - clear and dominant purpose is driven by personal financial affairs/lifestyle decisions and does not point to a scheme to reduce tax (Part IVA).

Opinions?

Sam
Comments are personal in nature and do not constitute advice.

Hi Sam where does this quote come from?
 
First time poster, Howdy all.
There has been at least one private ruling from the ATO regarding capitalised interest, see attached.

Here's two critical excerpts:

Your new line of credit will have the following features:
- the loan will be a line of credit with a specified limit
- the loan will be an on call facility with no specified term
- the repayments will be on an interest only basis
- there are no minimum repayments required to be paid to the loan while the loan debt is within the approved limit
- interest is calculated on the outstanding debt of this loan only
- the interest rate is based on the bank’s standard rate for this facility. The interest rate may be discounted under a
package, and
- the interest applicable only to this line of credit will be added to this loan debt within the approved limit, capitalising this interest.

and

In your case, compound interest will be incurred on funds borrowed, under a line of credit facility, to acquire an income producing asset. As such, the compound interest will be incurred in earning assessable income and will be an allowable deduction.


It's worth noting that a private ruling is only applicable to the applicant, and only for the relevant tax year. So seek your own ruling if you want to be sure.

Cheers
- Rod
 

Attachments

  • 69725 LOC int.PDF
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First time poster, Howdy all.
There has been at least one private ruling from the ATO regarding capitalised interest, see attached.

Here's two critical excerpts:

Your new line of credit will have the following features:
- the loan will be a line of credit with a specified limit
- the loan will be an on call facility with no specified term
- the repayments will be on an interest only basis
- there are no minimum repayments required to be paid to the loan while the loan debt is within the approved limit
- interest is calculated on the outstanding debt of this loan only
- the interest rate is based on the bank’s standard rate for this facility. The interest rate may be discounted under a
package, and
- the interest applicable only to this line of credit will be added to this loan debt within the approved limit, capitalising this interest.

and

In your case, compound interest will be incurred on funds borrowed, under a line of credit facility, to acquire an income producing asset. As such, the compound interest will be incurred in earning assessable income and will be an allowable deduction.


It's worth noting that a private ruling is only applicable to the applicant, and only for the relevant tax year. So seek your own ruling if you want to be sure.

Cheers
- Rod

Reading from ruling:

"The line of credit will be obtained on a capitalised interest basis as you do not wish to use personal funds to service these investments."

Wonder what this implies re use of investment income such as rents or dividends (presumably this is different to 'personal funds') needing to service investment borrowings?

Sam.
 
Great post but what does this paragraph mean?

"You will initially draw a portion of this line of credit to invest in managed funds. You will also make additional monthly contributions to your investments from this line of credit."

Does it mean that to show the LOC loan is to create income you have to make an initial investment from it?


and this one

"The private home loan and the line of credit are two distinct separate loan products from the bank. They are not sub accounts under single principal loan facility. Sub accounts are not an available option under either loan facility.

Each loan has separate terms and conditions which refer to each respective loan solely. The loans are not linked in any way other than sharing the same security. "

I dont quite get this bit either?
 
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