Hi guys
Read some of the other posts so I hope I'm understanding this correctly. Please let me know if I'm contaminating my loan by using cash savings and equity to purchase my next IP. May some more experience investors have a better suggestion. A novice here, my purchases were a bit of luck so really I don't know what I'm doing.
Situation: no PPOR, just have IPs. I've revalued IP1 and have been approved for a top up. IP2 has potential for a top up as well.
IP1:
Loan $238,000, split into 2 loans I/O
Loan 1: $130,000
Loan 2: $108,000
After top-up of loan; $298,000
Loan 1: $190,000
Loan 2: $108,000
So now I have an extra $60K of equity to use for my next IP in Loan 1 sitting in the redraw/loan account.
IP2:
Loan $315,000, split into 2 loans I/O. Should be able to revalue to get $40K equity
Loan 3: $160,000
Loan 4: $155,000
I'm looking to purchase an off the plan apartment ~$500K and need to pay a $5000 deposit by cheque. But the redraw/loan account for Loan 1 only has bank transfer or bpay no cheque option.
If I pay the $5000 deposit from my cash savings from another transaction account and then later pay the remainder of the 10% deposit $45K from the redraw account, is all the interest on Loan 1 after redrawing the $45K still fully deductible? I intend to pay the rest of the stamp duty and legal fees with the remaining $15K which would be stilling in the redraw and then any remainder fees with my cash savings at settlement.
By using the combination of the equity and cash savings to pay for the purchase of IP3 would all the interest in Loan 1 still be tax deductible or have I now contaminate my loan? Or is there a better way to structure this?
From what I understand is as long as I don't transfer the $60K to other transactions accounts and only directly do a bpay or bank transfer from the redraw account to pay for the remaining deposit, stamp duty and legal fees, then there is no contamination and I can still claim the full interest from Loan 1.
My intention is to purchase another property IP4 shortly after ~$600K again off the plan and then use the equity from IP2 $40K equity to pay for the deposit and the remainder of the deposit with cash savings. If I use the $15K from Loan 1 for IP4 deposit is this also mixing/contaminating the loans? Would this make it very difficult to track in the long run if I sell a property or my one of the IPs into my PPOR?
All properties would be 90%+LMI
Going on a punt, hopefully there is going to be some good capital growth in the coming years for these. If there's a bubble bust I'll be in trouble.
Read some of the other posts so I hope I'm understanding this correctly. Please let me know if I'm contaminating my loan by using cash savings and equity to purchase my next IP. May some more experience investors have a better suggestion. A novice here, my purchases were a bit of luck so really I don't know what I'm doing.
Situation: no PPOR, just have IPs. I've revalued IP1 and have been approved for a top up. IP2 has potential for a top up as well.
IP1:
Loan $238,000, split into 2 loans I/O
Loan 1: $130,000
Loan 2: $108,000
After top-up of loan; $298,000
Loan 1: $190,000
Loan 2: $108,000
So now I have an extra $60K of equity to use for my next IP in Loan 1 sitting in the redraw/loan account.
IP2:
Loan $315,000, split into 2 loans I/O. Should be able to revalue to get $40K equity
Loan 3: $160,000
Loan 4: $155,000
I'm looking to purchase an off the plan apartment ~$500K and need to pay a $5000 deposit by cheque. But the redraw/loan account for Loan 1 only has bank transfer or bpay no cheque option.
If I pay the $5000 deposit from my cash savings from another transaction account and then later pay the remainder of the 10% deposit $45K from the redraw account, is all the interest on Loan 1 after redrawing the $45K still fully deductible? I intend to pay the rest of the stamp duty and legal fees with the remaining $15K which would be stilling in the redraw and then any remainder fees with my cash savings at settlement.
By using the combination of the equity and cash savings to pay for the purchase of IP3 would all the interest in Loan 1 still be tax deductible or have I now contaminate my loan? Or is there a better way to structure this?
From what I understand is as long as I don't transfer the $60K to other transactions accounts and only directly do a bpay or bank transfer from the redraw account to pay for the remaining deposit, stamp duty and legal fees, then there is no contamination and I can still claim the full interest from Loan 1.
My intention is to purchase another property IP4 shortly after ~$600K again off the plan and then use the equity from IP2 $40K equity to pay for the deposit and the remainder of the deposit with cash savings. If I use the $15K from Loan 1 for IP4 deposit is this also mixing/contaminating the loans? Would this make it very difficult to track in the long run if I sell a property or my one of the IPs into my PPOR?
All properties would be 90%+LMI
Going on a punt, hopefully there is going to be some good capital growth in the coming years for these. If there's a bubble bust I'll be in trouble.