Hi there.
I have a hypothetical question that I hope someone can answer.
If I had a good income, a PPOR paid off, a loan with lender A for $20000 and wanted to borrow 95% say, with another lender, and not use the other two properties as collateral, just the new IP, then am I right in thinking that the LVR of the first two properties would not be used in the lenders calculations on the new loan?
I have a hypothetical question that I hope someone can answer.
If I had a good income, a PPOR paid off, a loan with lender A for $20000 and wanted to borrow 95% say, with another lender, and not use the other two properties as collateral, just the new IP, then am I right in thinking that the LVR of the first two properties would not be used in the lenders calculations on the new loan?