I'm looking at unit 3. The agent has given me the contract of sale for Unit 4 which recently sold. It is identical unit.
I thought an offer is invalid without a valid Section 32. If I submit an offer now (before getting the contract for unit 3), doesn't the offer mean absolutely nothing? Doesn't it work in the vendor's favour because he can now use that offer to influence other buyers?
I thought an offer is invalid without a valid Section 32. If I submit an offer now (before getting the contract for unit 3), doesn't the offer mean absolutely nothing? Doesn't it work in the vendor's favour because he can now use that offer to influence other buyers?