Hi all,
I've come across a scenario where I'm uncertain of the tax implications and hope you can shed some light for me?
Property 1 PPOR owned by Uncle and Niece.
Loan split 1 - original loan, both borrowers
loan split 2 - used for IP in niece's name only.
If loan 2 has both PPOR owners names on loan, but use is for IP in nieces name only, is interest claimable -
100% by niece?
50% by niece?
I've wrestled with it but conceeded defeat
Thank you!
I've come across a scenario where I'm uncertain of the tax implications and hope you can shed some light for me?
Property 1 PPOR owned by Uncle and Niece.
Loan split 1 - original loan, both borrowers
loan split 2 - used for IP in niece's name only.
If loan 2 has both PPOR owners names on loan, but use is for IP in nieces name only, is interest claimable -
100% by niece?
50% by niece?
I've wrestled with it but conceeded defeat
Thank you!