A
Anonymous
Guest
From: Anonymous
If you were to put down a deposit for a $400,000 ‘off-the-plan’ property under a company name, with a 2 year settlement/construction period, and then decide to sell for $480,000 once the building is complete (ie- after the 2 years) – normally you’d have to settle the property, pay $13,500 in stamp duty and then sell it to the new buyer (who would then also pay stamp duty on the new sale price of $480,000).
Rather than do this, would it be possible to sell the company to the new buyer before settlement, by making the buyer the new director of the company? The buyer would then pay you $80,000 (which is actually your profit from the property) and be responsible for the company settling on the property. This would save you $13,500 in stamp duty because you’re not actually settling it yourself, and the new buyer would only pay stamp duty on the purchase price of $400,000 - not $480,000!
Can anyone tell me if they can see this scenario working, or is there something I am missing? How would the $80,000 profit be taxed - would it be classed as proceeds from the sale of the company or something else?
If you were to put down a deposit for a $400,000 ‘off-the-plan’ property under a company name, with a 2 year settlement/construction period, and then decide to sell for $480,000 once the building is complete (ie- after the 2 years) – normally you’d have to settle the property, pay $13,500 in stamp duty and then sell it to the new buyer (who would then also pay stamp duty on the new sale price of $480,000).
Rather than do this, would it be possible to sell the company to the new buyer before settlement, by making the buyer the new director of the company? The buyer would then pay you $80,000 (which is actually your profit from the property) and be responsible for the company settling on the property. This would save you $13,500 in stamp duty because you’re not actually settling it yourself, and the new buyer would only pay stamp duty on the purchase price of $400,000 - not $480,000!
Can anyone tell me if they can see this scenario working, or is there something I am missing? How would the $80,000 profit be taxed - would it be classed as proceeds from the sale of the company or something else?
Last edited by a moderator: