assuming the equity is accessible a wrap or lease option would suit my current situation nicely.
I still can't get my head around it though. I assume when you wrap a property you cannot use the equity built from capital growth to borrow against as the property is effectively owned by the wrappee? However if you bought at say 90k wrapped at a sale price of 110k does that contractual CG mean anything in the eyes of the banks?
A lease option looks more viable as the lessor retains ownership until the lessee exercises the option? again there seems to be the implied CG in the option contract but as far as the bnk is concerned if I go to them and ask to borrow against the equity in the optioned property do they even know it has an option on it?
and what happens when the buyer exercises the option and equity in the property which I've borrowed against suddenly dissapears (or at least reverts to the contractual CG)?
I suppose this question is relevant for any property that borrowings against it's equity that is sold for under bank valuation.
I still can't get my head around it though. I assume when you wrap a property you cannot use the equity built from capital growth to borrow against as the property is effectively owned by the wrappee? However if you bought at say 90k wrapped at a sale price of 110k does that contractual CG mean anything in the eyes of the banks?
A lease option looks more viable as the lessor retains ownership until the lessee exercises the option? again there seems to be the implied CG in the option contract but as far as the bnk is concerned if I go to them and ask to borrow against the equity in the optioned property do they even know it has an option on it?
and what happens when the buyer exercises the option and equity in the property which I've borrowed against suddenly dissapears (or at least reverts to the contractual CG)?
I suppose this question is relevant for any property that borrowings against it's equity that is sold for under bank valuation.