another CGT question

i think i now understand how a ppor come ip for less than 6 years and back to ppor is cgt exempt as long as the owner has not had a another ppor in the meantime (eg, moved back home with parents or rented somewhere else)? i know it doesnt say how long the property has to be an ppor before becoming an ip, but dale :) do you have some real life experiences?

what im not clear about is what happens when its in reverse - ie, do the same rules apply when its an ip that become becomes a ppor within 6 years as long as the owner has not had another ppor in the meantime (eg, living at home with parents or renting somewhere else)?

dale, is there somewhere on the web that i dl an ato file that refers specifically to situations like these?

thanks again,

julie

dale - btw - i was at a michael yardney seminar last night and he gave you a few plugs :)
 
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