Hi Dale
My situation is as follows.
I have owned a business and the land it's built on for over 15 years. I have rented the business to my children for 6 out of the past 15 years.
The legislation says that in order for my business to pass the Active Asset Test, it has to be an active asset immediately before it is sold. Currently it is being rented by my children. I'm hoping to end the lease soon, assume management of the business again breifly before selling it.
In theory, if I ran the business for 1 day before selling it, it would pass the "just before" condition and I would pay no CGT.
My question is this: Is there a minimum period of time I would have to run the business immediately before selling it to satisfy the active asset test? ie , could I actually run it for 1 day to satisfy the active asset test?
Cheers