i just got conflicting information today regarding CGT discount timing.
1 accountant and an investor friend says the 1 year time starts from contract signing/accepted
another accountant and a broker friend says it starts from settlement (therefore can sell earlier and agree to settle at later date after the settlement anniv)
can anyone please clarify which is correct.
**ignore other variables such as intent, structure etc.....assume the property does qualify for cgt**
1 accountant and an investor friend says the 1 year time starts from contract signing/accepted
another accountant and a broker friend says it starts from settlement (therefore can sell earlier and agree to settle at later date after the settlement anniv)
can anyone please clarify which is correct.
**ignore other variables such as intent, structure etc.....assume the property does qualify for cgt**