Responding to dave99, LA typed the following. Token Funder hopes that LA's patience will extend to clarifying some points:
The Govt introduced those rules, because it is far cheaper for them to pay us tax deductions to provide the housing than it is for them to cover the cost of the housing.
Would you would be supportive, therefore, of forgoing NG benefits (insofar as they can be offset against PAYG income) if it could be shown that a greater net benefit in housing availability or cost would be gained by application of those funds to an alternative process, taxation or otherwise?
I am simply using the existing rules to my advantage. Also the effect is longer term; by providing investors with incentives to provide for their own future through property investment, it means the Govt (ultimately the tax payers) is relieved of the burden of having to support us in retirement.
Same argument can apply to *any* form of saving or investment. If it could be shown to provide a greater net contribution to retirement savings, would you support the transfer of NG benefits to, say, the removal of tax on all forms of savings or increases in the direct contribution to super made by govt?
Rental squeezes are not caused by lack of houses; they are caused by unattractive economic factors for renters to go out and buy a home for themselves.
and:
Currently, there is an under-supply of housing apparently.
I assume by "squeeze" you mean a lack of homes to rent and/or increased costs of same. Are you proposing that an under-supply of housing doesn't make the under-supplied asset harder to find or more expensive? What would your logic be here?
To say that we are a negative influence on the housing industry through our Govt tax deductions is inaccurate.
Do you agree that, given banks no longer (BTW, changes may be in the wind) charge a premium for investment properties, the purchasing power of an investor is superior to that of an OO. Do you beleive that the superior purchasing power of 30% of purchasors has no negative influence on the availability of stock or the price paid by the other 70%?
The Govt introduced those rules, because it is far cheaper for them to pay us tax deductions to provide the housing than it is for them to cover the cost of the housing.
Would you would be supportive, therefore, of forgoing NG benefits (insofar as they can be offset against PAYG income) if it could be shown that a greater net benefit in housing availability or cost would be gained by application of those funds to an alternative process, taxation or otherwise?
I am simply using the existing rules to my advantage. Also the effect is longer term; by providing investors with incentives to provide for their own future through property investment, it means the Govt (ultimately the tax payers) is relieved of the burden of having to support us in retirement.
Same argument can apply to *any* form of saving or investment. If it could be shown to provide a greater net contribution to retirement savings, would you support the transfer of NG benefits to, say, the removal of tax on all forms of savings or increases in the direct contribution to super made by govt?
Rental squeezes are not caused by lack of houses; they are caused by unattractive economic factors for renters to go out and buy a home for themselves.
and:
Currently, there is an under-supply of housing apparently.
I assume by "squeeze" you mean a lack of homes to rent and/or increased costs of same. Are you proposing that an under-supply of housing doesn't make the under-supplied asset harder to find or more expensive? What would your logic be here?
To say that we are a negative influence on the housing industry through our Govt tax deductions is inaccurate.
Do you agree that, given banks no longer (BTW, changes may be in the wind) charge a premium for investment properties, the purchasing power of an investor is superior to that of an OO. Do you beleive that the superior purchasing power of 30% of purchasors has no negative influence on the availability of stock or the price paid by the other 70%?
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