portfolio forecaster

[simonjulie]

I have edited and posted the spread sheet with JAM's upgrades.
I have left the first spreadsheet unlocked so that people can play with the other calcs.
Kind regards
Simon

 

[Rystar]

E24 is the funds that are taken from the LOC(B20) for deposit in this case
E 28 is what is left over for future fundings or renos(these funds are then transfered as real equity D 62
Cheers
Simon

Hi Simon
i must be having a "stupid" day.
or i might be thinking a bit too simply.

what i have in mine is:
$84K in avail equity in D10.
im then using 85% of that in B18 to get $71K to use to buy the next place.
the value is $300K in B24 and with the LRV of the new loan at 80% the value of the new loan is 240K
so the new loan of $240K and the $71K should cover buying the house and costs.
so where does E24 and E28 fit in??
does it fit in with what i have done??
or how could it be used??

thanks for your help
Ryan

 

[simonjulie]

Hi Rystar
Lets say that you wanted to draw down 100% in B18 instead of the 85% you selected. There would be a surplus of LOC funds still available for you to use. I call that surplus unemployed funds and the LOC funds that have been used up for the deposit and costs are therefore employed funds.
Does this help
Simon

 

[Rystar]

Hi Simon
yeah it does help, thanks.
maybe as a thought.....
the figure of unemployed funds should/could be calc'd from the unused portion of the LOC and the amount of available cash (E10).


oh.... something about the forcaster with 5 positions....
in position 3, 4 and 5. the calc at B20 still references the dollar figure at D10 and not D11

cheers
Ryan

 

[simonjulie]

Thanks again Rystar
I will look at your suggestion and fix the faulty calc. Infact I will repost the sheet unlocked later today
Kind regards
Simon
It is now updated
Rystar
Can you explain your intentions for your first question about unemployed funds calc?

 

[Rystar]

Hi Simon

for me, when dealing with these kind of spreadsheets, i like to see what the actual numbers are.
i think by letting the user put in the percentage, it may or may not show the correct position.
everything seems to be there, to be able to calc this figure. so why not do it.
instead of leaving it up to a bit of guesswork.
i think it would also give you a better picture of where you are, to start to plan your next purchase.

does that make sense?

cheers
Ryan


edit: i have realised that the percentage entered for employed funds should be the remainder of the LOC. so the "guesswork" i alluded to isnt really there.
since you know the percentage being used in cell B18.
i think i was getting confused, because it was sitting next to the LVR for the new loan and it didnt add up.
and because the amount was negative, when you actually have this amount to use.

 

[simonjulie]

Hi Rystar
the reason I use a % of the Asset base as imput data (d 49 ,e49,e55, f55)is because as my portfolio grew it became easier to forcast this way rather than to split everything up into individual investments. Yes it will take a bit of trial and error with making the %'s line up with actual costs but overall once the position is established it reflects a different perspective of the investors big picture.
Kind regards
Simon