I have searched the numerous threads on PPOR and CGT but have not found an answer than pertains to our particular circumstances. Our PPOR is on 2 titles. . It was when we bought it, we have not subdivided or changed it in any way. It is a Rural Living block totalling 2 acresWe have only ever used it as a PPOR. The house itself sits clearly on one title - it does not straddle boundaries.
If we were to sell it as a whole to one purchaser I believe it would clearly qualify for the PPOR CGT exemption. However, it may be more advantageous to sell them separately, as we may get more selling them to different purchasers. I suspect if we were to sell off the "vacant" title and keep the "house" title we would be up for CGT, but if we did sell them separately (as in sold to different purchasers) but at the same time are we then merely maximising our sale price (assuming they were marketed at the same time)?
We are also crunching the numbers on selling the property to our own DT (which we would create), putting a house on the "vacant" title, and renting both houses as IPs. But cashflow constraints may prove this particular approach unviable.
If we were to sell it as a whole to one purchaser I believe it would clearly qualify for the PPOR CGT exemption. However, it may be more advantageous to sell them separately, as we may get more selling them to different purchasers. I suspect if we were to sell off the "vacant" title and keep the "house" title we would be up for CGT, but if we did sell them separately (as in sold to different purchasers) but at the same time are we then merely maximising our sale price (assuming they were marketed at the same time)?
We are also crunching the numbers on selling the property to our own DT (which we would create), putting a house on the "vacant" title, and renting both houses as IPs. But cashflow constraints may prove this particular approach unviable.
