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Hi,
I have recently redrawn against my PPOR for the purchase of an investment property. There is some money left in this account, would I create any contamination issues from a tax point of view if I was to use the remaining funds to purchase some shares?
Thanks for the replies. Hypothetical numbers.
PPOR loan originally 500k @ 90%
Repay 50k into offset and get house revalued now @600k.
Reduce balance of PPOR to 450k, and access available equity up to 90% (so total loan amount 540k).
2 loans now both secured by PPOR, one for 450k, the other for 90k (to be used for investment property).
If i was to spend 70k on a property, costs etc could the remaining 20k be used in another investment class, like shares? Or would this become an accounting nightmare?
I hope this makes more sense?!
3. If you sell the shares or the IP then the original loan, ie $70k or $20k should be paid back
If you pay back the $20k, won't this need to be apportioned across each of the borrowings, effectively leaving you with a reduced deductible amount and a now non-deductible amount.
IMHO you would be better off getting 2 splits, one for the $70k and another for the $20k.
If you pay back the $20k, won't this need to be apportioned across each of the borrowings, effectively leaving you with a reduced deductible amount and a now non-deductible amount.