My husband and myself are looking at purchasing our first neg geared IP through a HDT. I have no income and no assets. I understand the concept of borrowing in my husbands name, using the borrowings to purchase units in the HDT, and then the HDT purchasing the property. HOWEVER, I can't understand why a bank would loan money to my husband when the property (against which the loan is secured) is not owned by my husband. Can someone explain this to me?
Thanks,
Fiona
Thanks,
Fiona
Last edited: