just wondering. currently have access to investar and pricefinder. also had reports done from rpdata before to compare.
notice that APM valuations consistently come in WAY WAY lower than the other 2. is there a reason for this?
when i say low, i mean lower than whats currently selling in market, sold in the market and even purchase price itself.
notice that APM valuations consistently come in WAY WAY lower than the other 2. is there a reason for this?
when i say low, i mean lower than whats currently selling in market, sold in the market and even purchase price itself.