But the interest isn't being paid from an income source but borrowed. It is an artificial scheme to increase deductions.
This part I agree with. This one falls into PartIVA.... but what about the example below? The interest costs aren't be capitalised, no additional money is borrowed etc.
Have i missed something here?
LOL
That's a very simplistic view. It doesn't matter where its paid from, banked or used. The Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 clearly says if the interest was necessarily incurred in earning assessable income its deductible right ?. The issue is did the additional deduction incur additional income ? Was the additional deduction a scheme to derive a tax benefit?. Part IVA is also within same tax law and denies some or all the interest....If its hard to work out the ATO deny 100%. You have to argue the point as an objection and then an appeal.
Sorry, I am still confused. Can you explain what would happen in the following scenario:
Person buys a property. Purchase price is $200,000. Interest rate at 5%, paying interest only. Interest cost per year is $10,000. The property is being rented out at $500 per week, so $26,000 per annum. Assume there are no other expenses.
Person uses rental income to cover the interest cost and the rates. Therefore they are left with $16,000 in rental income. This $16,000 is declared on their tax return and they pay tax on it at their marginal rates.
There is no capitalisation of interest going on, the loan remains at $200,000 and they are only deducting interest charged based on the $200,000.
Question, MUST the $16,000 be retained in an offset account (or alternatively paid into the loan account) in order for them to maintain a tax deduction on the property (assuming they do not have any private ruling in place).
I would have thought the $16,000 could be used for any purpose, whether it be paying down an existing PPR, buying a car, going on holiday etc. Is this not correct?