Just been doing some reading on FBT, can someone just tell me if this example is right or not?
Lets say you have a nice profitable company dealing in real estate.
Ok company pays employee $2000 for annual health insurance
This reduces profit by the same amount, therefore saving the company $600 in tax.
However the company then has to turn around and pay 48.5% tax on this same $2000 = $970
So in real terms its cost the company an extra $370 dollars in tax
But it has cost the employee nothing except for the reportable fringe benefit (which only applies for child care/maintenance)
So if you do the same thing for a car purchase and the employee uses the car for 50% private use
Car = $40 000
So this has reduced the company profit by $40000 which equals a tax saving of $12000
So if private use was 50% then the FBT payable by the Company would be 48.5% of $20000 = $9700
So the car has cost the company $49700 - 12000(tax that would have been paid anyway) = $37700
of which you get a fair bit back in depreciation
So again the employee hasnt paid anything out of their own wage (an employee would had to have earnt approx $60000 to afford the
$40000 car)
Am I on the right track?....
it could be just late night rambling
Lets say you have a nice profitable company dealing in real estate.
Ok company pays employee $2000 for annual health insurance
This reduces profit by the same amount, therefore saving the company $600 in tax.
However the company then has to turn around and pay 48.5% tax on this same $2000 = $970
So in real terms its cost the company an extra $370 dollars in tax
But it has cost the employee nothing except for the reportable fringe benefit (which only applies for child care/maintenance)
So if you do the same thing for a car purchase and the employee uses the car for 50% private use
Car = $40 000
So this has reduced the company profit by $40000 which equals a tax saving of $12000
So if private use was 50% then the FBT payable by the Company would be 48.5% of $20000 = $9700
So the car has cost the company $49700 - 12000(tax that would have been paid anyway) = $37700
of which you get a fair bit back in depreciation
So again the employee hasnt paid anything out of their own wage (an employee would had to have earnt approx $60000 to afford the
$40000 car)
Am I on the right track?....
it could be just late night rambling