Hi all,
I'm due to settle on an IP (NSW) Next week.
However, the bank are (rightly in my opinion) questioning the differences found between the contract and title registration. This is going to delay settlement and cost me in penalty payments every day I don't settle.
The basic sequence of events is something like this
September 2009
Exchange took place, contract is signed between vendor A an myself.
February 2010
Receive notification that vendor A sell their interest to NewVendorB
A transfer of direction is created with Transferor NewVendorB and Transferee being myself
I never signed the Transfer of Direction or a new contract with newVendorB
September 2010
Title registration occurs and I now need to settle within 14 days.
Bank raises an issue with regards to the contract and title registration / search. In essence I think what they are saying is that I signed a Contract to buy a property based on the fact that the Vendor was Vendor A. The bank believe that either the Contract should have been between myself and NewVendorB or I should have consented to the sale Vendor A to NewVendorB
Last night I received an email from the conveyancer suggesting I take independent legal advice as I think this is now beyond the conveyancers knowledge or capability. This morning I have engaged a solicitor to look at the issue.
Does anyone, preferably with legal knowledge, have any views as to my position on this? Do I have any remit for compensation?
Where was the mistake in this process?
Cheers all.
I'm due to settle on an IP (NSW) Next week.
However, the bank are (rightly in my opinion) questioning the differences found between the contract and title registration. This is going to delay settlement and cost me in penalty payments every day I don't settle.
The basic sequence of events is something like this
September 2009
Exchange took place, contract is signed between vendor A an myself.
February 2010
Receive notification that vendor A sell their interest to NewVendorB
A transfer of direction is created with Transferor NewVendorB and Transferee being myself
I never signed the Transfer of Direction or a new contract with newVendorB
September 2010
Title registration occurs and I now need to settle within 14 days.
Bank raises an issue with regards to the contract and title registration / search. In essence I think what they are saying is that I signed a Contract to buy a property based on the fact that the Vendor was Vendor A. The bank believe that either the Contract should have been between myself and NewVendorB or I should have consented to the sale Vendor A to NewVendorB
Last night I received an email from the conveyancer suggesting I take independent legal advice as I think this is now beyond the conveyancers knowledge or capability. This morning I have engaged a solicitor to look at the issue.
Does anyone, preferably with legal knowledge, have any views as to my position on this? Do I have any remit for compensation?
Where was the mistake in this process?
Cheers all.