why can't you topup the existing loan to get the 80%value increase out to pay down payment and fees for the new purchase?
what's the difference of "top up and split" loan and cross collatarisation loan? pros and cons?
i.e. IP A purchase price 400k, LVR80%(loan 320k), current market value 600k.
If you want to buy a new IP B say also 600k, how shall we structure your loan?
scenario 1
cross collatarisation) 600k+600k=1.2mil, finance 80& of total value, that's a loan of 960k, pay down the owing of IP A 320k, 960k-320k=640k. so you have 640k to buy the IP B and pay its fees, which are tax deductable.
scenario 2: (without cross collatarisation) you go to the existing lender to topup the value increase part of IP A. 600kx80%=480K. pay down the existing owing of IP A 320k,which gives you 160k left to reinvest (as 20% downpayment of IP B and fees). Then separately, finance 80% of IP B on its own as the security. Is the 160k from IP A also tax deductable?
What's the pros and cons if scenario 2?