Dear all,
Been thinking too much about this and would appreciate the perspective of others. I was always told that paying off IP debt was in effect counter productive as it wasn't tax efficient. My understanding of this is: (i) it is only the interest on investment loans which is deductable, (ii) any money spent paying down debt could probably be invested for a greater return, and (iii) if money used to pay down debt has already been subject to tax it is costing you a great deal more to reduce the loan. Hence IO loans are the most prevalent type of IP financing (and I suppose P&I makes servicing a bit harder).
The benefits of negative gearing just reinforces the reasons of never paying off the debt. About the only rational argument for paying down IP debt I've seen mentioned is SANF.
My situation is slightly different from the norm, so I wonder whether I should follow the crowd. I'm currently in the UK but planning a move back to Oz. I have two properties and hope to keep them as IPs. The UK doesn't allow negative gearing.
On IO basis both IPs would be +ve geared
On P&I basis one IPs would be -ve geared, the other neutral.
(Assuming rents increase it will only take a short while for both to be +ve geared. I've factored in all major costs in these calcs. Details if people want them.)
I think I would be justified in setting up my IP loans as P&I as:
1) there is little difference between P&I and IO payments. As the rents almost equal the mortgage payment I might as well pay it off. It's too small an amount to be useful...
2) the rental income would be my UK total income according to Inland Revenue. After I deduct interest payments this amount will be very low (at the start of the loan). This wouldn't be the case if I was resident in the same country as the IPs.
3) In 25 yrs they'd be debt free AND the combined value will be considerable.
This appeals as I can let the UK 'pay for itself'. I won't need to send money back which is my silent fear.
Questions:
1) Does the above makes sense? Under what circumstance would paying off IP debt make sense?
2) Am I right in thinking that the meagre amount that it is (rent - interest payments) will be of interest to ATO (even though this will be less than the taxable allowance in the UK)?
I'm really asking the second question in vain. I think I know the answer.
Thanks for any insight you have,
slower_learner
Been thinking too much about this and would appreciate the perspective of others. I was always told that paying off IP debt was in effect counter productive as it wasn't tax efficient. My understanding of this is: (i) it is only the interest on investment loans which is deductable, (ii) any money spent paying down debt could probably be invested for a greater return, and (iii) if money used to pay down debt has already been subject to tax it is costing you a great deal more to reduce the loan. Hence IO loans are the most prevalent type of IP financing (and I suppose P&I makes servicing a bit harder).
The benefits of negative gearing just reinforces the reasons of never paying off the debt. About the only rational argument for paying down IP debt I've seen mentioned is SANF.
My situation is slightly different from the norm, so I wonder whether I should follow the crowd. I'm currently in the UK but planning a move back to Oz. I have two properties and hope to keep them as IPs. The UK doesn't allow negative gearing.
On IO basis both IPs would be +ve geared
On P&I basis one IPs would be -ve geared, the other neutral.
(Assuming rents increase it will only take a short while for both to be +ve geared. I've factored in all major costs in these calcs. Details if people want them.)
I think I would be justified in setting up my IP loans as P&I as:
1) there is little difference between P&I and IO payments. As the rents almost equal the mortgage payment I might as well pay it off. It's too small an amount to be useful...
2) the rental income would be my UK total income according to Inland Revenue. After I deduct interest payments this amount will be very low (at the start of the loan). This wouldn't be the case if I was resident in the same country as the IPs.
3) In 25 yrs they'd be debt free AND the combined value will be considerable.
This appeals as I can let the UK 'pay for itself'. I won't need to send money back which is my silent fear.
Questions:
1) Does the above makes sense? Under what circumstance would paying off IP debt make sense?
2) Am I right in thinking that the meagre amount that it is (rent - interest payments) will be of interest to ATO (even though this will be less than the taxable allowance in the UK)?
I'm really asking the second question in vain. I think I know the answer.
Thanks for any insight you have,
slower_learner