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Hi Sunfish
I don't disagree with much of what you say but shouldn't yields be included in returns on the borrowed funds whatever the funds are in.
That's where I am not mainstream here. I think of yield on your equity and yield on the borrowed moneys. If yield is 3% net that will add to the 5% p/a capital appreciation and get you neutral on "normal" interest rates. This is not an exact science of course. I drift off when someone says they are getting 10-15% return on a property they bought some time ago. Those cap gains have already been booked, they are yours and they are already realisable (if they can't be realised, they are not real). If you are only getting 2% cap gains then you are giving back some of your profit. Note: I do not take the attitude that I'm there for the long haul. There is always a bull market somewhere and if it isn't in property, go find it.
If I'm going to borrow a couple of mil for RE speculation I want a profit on that money. Of course you can swallow a loss if there is cap gains in the short term but they are not assured in this climate.
Hi Sunfish
I don't disagree with much of what you say but shouldn't yields be included in returns on the borrowed funds whatever the funds are in.
"And you misquoted me. I did not say: anyone with less than 5% pa CG is losing money. What I said was : that you are losing money on any and all borrowed funds. I deliberately made that statement hoping someone would take up the challenge and prove me wrong."
Regards
Peter
is exactly what I said but I'm not sure what is meant by the bit I bolded. The $8k interest has been paid every month so that has been realised. The $3k yield has gone back into your account so has also been realised. At the end of the year your $5k loss has been offset by a cap gain so you have a neutral investment. (Not quite, there is opportunity cost on your expenses, but that's OK). I have no interest in doing million dollar financial deals if I just hope to break even. Some have scoffed at the stories of a property crash by saying "What property crash? There was only a 1.5% fall last qtr". There is a mile of difference between a 5% pa gain and a 1.5% pqtr loss.Tomorrow I buy a $100,000 asset, loan 100% @ 8%,net yield 3% cg %5.
To me that is neutral, plus the yield has been realised.
If expenses are 4.4% (I did say it wasn't an exact science) and you book 11.9% appreciation, of course you make a profit. But that doesn't prove you can make a profit with just 4.4% appreciation.So, profit from equity increase after break-even CG of 4.4% (= 11.9 - 4.4 = 7.5%. or $32.8k (imputed from $470k).
They are unhelpful, especially from someone who objects to being called a Pollyanna.those who are decidedly bearish about IPs
Is any borrowing for IP at an operating loss if the CG is not 5% or more?
This sounds fair enough to me. If you are doing the calcs to see if you will enter into a deal then your own tax situation must be taken into account. Trouble is, on the forum we all have different tax rates and for privacy reasons posters don't divulge any detail about this so I think for general discussions on the forum tax should be ignored and it is up to the individual to make the necessary adjustments. I, personally, have never made "tax advantageous" investments. I know of a couple here who rue having made them in the past.To me, an "operating loss" is when after all expenses have been included (including loans), the business (or property) has a negative cashflow. Some people look at that figure as a before tax figure, which I believe is not being realistic. I look at it as an after tax figure.
Sunfish; [B said:I will admit I had trouble understanding your post. But I will only read any reply if you desist from such statements as this They are unhelpful, especially from someone who objects to being called a Pollyanna.[/B]
This can be a confusing term.
To me, an "operating loss" is when after all expenses have been included (including loans), the business (or property) has a negative cashflow. Some people look at that figure as a before tax figure, which I believe is not being realistic. I look at it as an after tax figure.
Operating loss - more money going out than going in.
The value of that business is what it is worth if it was sold, and is not part of the operating expenses/cashflows until it is sold. It's value is not listed on the profit/loss statement - it's listed on the balance sheet - assets and liabilities.
You can have a property that goes nowhere in terms of cap gain, but returns a pos income, or operating profit every week. Many companies on the stock exchange have very low value today, but they're operating at a profit.
If you are intending to gain an operating profit out of it from the sale of the asset as well as the weekly cashflows, then you would need to include its cap gain % into the figures.
For me, as a cashflow investor, the value of the asset is really only important from the point of view of LVR and ongoing acquisitions from it's equity, and how much cashflow it can return to me.
It's great to be able to say you are "worth" $X, but that's not much use if you are going broke on a weekly basis from an operating (cashflow) loss.
In my world, the term "operating loss" is only relevant to the cashflows and return on investment after tax.
A good post Bay View. You may be closer to my way of thinking than I realised. Does that worry you?
This sounds fair enough to me. If you are doing the calcs to see if you will enter into a deal then your own tax situation must be taken into account. Trouble is, on the forum we all have different tax rates and for privacy reasons posters don't divulge any detail about this so I think for general discussions on the forum tax should be ignored and it is up to the individual to make the necessary adjustments. I, personally, have never made "tax advantageous" investments. I know of a couple here who rue having made them in the past.
It is as you say, operating loss = net of expenses, negative assessable income. CG in my example that was shown to offset the operating loss was obviously estimated based on the available median data in the suburb. It was shown as a plausible outcome, not an actual outcome unless sold, but potentially accessible through refinance.
If it (the cap gain) becomes accessible through refinance, then for me, there would need to be new income attached to that refinance to offset the new operating liabilities/expense of the new loan (debt) to justify the inclusion of that cap gain in the operating cashflows.
In other words; if I access that cap gain through refinance, it would be to use it for another asset with a rent/dividend/sales return.
I guess you could include it in a LOE situation, but you need to mindful that there is no "real" income supporting the LOE other than the projected cap gain, or the existing equity.
It's like a company financial controller saying "we have projected income of $x next year, because the projected cap gain in the company will be x% next year".
This can be a confusing term.
To me, an "operating loss" is when after all expenses have been included (including loans), the business (or property) has a negative cashflow. Some people look at that figure as a before tax figure, which I believe is not being realistic. I look at it as an after tax figure.
Operating loss - more money going out than going in.
The value of that business is what it is worth if it was sold, and is not part of the operating expenses/cashflows until it is sold. It's value is not listed on the profit/loss statement - it's listed on the balance sheet - assets and liabilities.
You can have a property that goes nowhere in terms of cap gain, but returns a pos income, or operating profit every week. Many companies on the stock exchange have very low value today, but they're operating at a profit.
If you are intending to gain an operating profit out of it from the sale of the asset as well as the weekly cashflows, then you would need to include its cap gain % into the figures.
For me, as a cashflow investor, the value of the asset is really only important from the point of view of LVR and ongoing acquisitions from it's equity, and how much cashflow it can return to me.
It's great to be able to say you are "worth" $X, but that's not much use if you are going broke on a weekly basis from an operating (cashflow) loss.
In my world, the term "operating loss" is only relevant to the cashflows and return on investment after tax.
It seems the word depression is now out of the bag see post below
http://money.ninemsn.com.au/article.aspx?id=684101
Time to reactivate the discussion on how you manage your properties in the soft depression
There is another thread in the property Market Economics that mentions funding issues with some of the insurance lenders. We are currently reviewing all our insurance policies and questioning the small print clauses. It has come to our attention that AMP is culling some of their brokers and with at least three of our building insurance policies they are now dealing with us directly.
I suspect as the financial melt down progresses we will see insurance companies doing what insurance companies do best...take your money and run. 12 years ago we had a fire at our business premises and then had two years of knock down drag out war with (not AMP) the assessors and then getting a pay out.
The statistics are that 80% of businesses that have a fire never reopen and we experienced why that was so. We discovered a cute little clause in our building insurance policy after the fire that stated if the business went under the insurer did not have to pay up the entire amount. In our case they left us hanging for two years. It was only the action of the ombudsman that brought the issue to a resolution.
I know times are tough but you must start to provision for the worst but putting aside some reserve funds preferrably in cash.