In 1989 we bought first home. Lender said , without any hint of political correctness of today, "of course we cannot count your wifes income, you are about to get married and clearly will be having children a year of two" - we were 22.
She was right! except it was 17 years later.
Now banks take everything into consideration. That why prices doubled over 1990's. Is that going to change?
DINK
look it up.
Peter 14.7
Your logic is correct, so is the logic about current scarcity of supply relative to growing demand, so is the logic about the long term decline in interest rates from the 1980's to now (with the short exception period in the early 1990's) supporting a sustainable borrowing amount.
These are all factors that support the market.
But to what extent is the market already
PRICING in these support figures? This is a key question in my opinion when looking at
FUTURE growth rates.
With the exception of cash flow positive property, most residential investment property is bought upon not just the
expectation but also the
reliance of good future price appreciation.
Will this good future price appreciation occur? well thats what all the debate is about. Dont look at me i dont have the answer, but neither do i have the insurance to cover myself if they dont.
I had insurance when i bought in 2007, but not now at these higher levels.
Now i hear some people saying but property doubles every 10 years. And this axiom could well continue, my 'gut' feeling is that if it worked consistently in the past it will probably (but not certainly) work into the future. But it doesnt mean a consistent increase every year by 7%.
Who knows we could have another year of say 10% growth followed by 9 years of positive/negative fluctuations totalling zero growth for 9 years, followed by a whopper of a growth year in year 11.
In such a case the axiom would still hold, but i just wonder as to the popularity durability of residential investment property under such circumstances.
Why is the popularity important?
because if an asset is priced on popularity it will be priced closer to perfection, ie with less 'risk' priced into the asset.
If the popularity decreases, then the 'risk' factor demanded will increase, which puts upwards pressure on returns (ie greater return demanded).
We have already seen this effect on the share market.
The 'popularity' effect can be seen through the change in market supported PE ratios.
Pre GFC PE ratio's where sustainable on a higher basis. Why because shares where popular, people where happy to buy on a lower 'risk factor'. The market had a lower pricing of risk.
Now consider the same market post GFC.
Shares are less popular, those participants still in the market want a higher 'risk factor', hence a lower PE.
This factor is apart from the factor that discounts slower growth in post GFC world and can be seen in the PE ratio's of those companies that are still maintaining their pre GFC growth rates (and expect to maintain those growth rates into the future), but now trade on a lower PE.