Nah,alexlee said:Using less extreme numbers:
Person A: rents and owns $300k in IPs
Person B: full owns $500k PPOR and has no IPS
I would argue that Person A has the better portfolio. Even ignoring cashflow, person A has more diversification, more flexibility, and most importantly Person A shows potential to significantly grow his/her portfolio in the future. Person B just bought their own place and paid it off. Great, but that means their growth is limited to their PPOR. Person A would be more open to new ideas which will make him/her a lot more money in the future.
Alex
Definately disagree with that one. That's a sweeping generalisation to suggest the nature of the properties held would indicate a certain investor psychology. In my situation I started out with IPs and shares THEN bought my PPOR by selling the lot. So now all I have is my PPOR so far as properties are concerned but I certainly don't fit in the "just got lucky buying a house" category. I've already pulled out the equity and leveraged it back into shares and am holding $100K in an LOC in reserve as 20% down on my next IP which I'm now scouring the market for. I'm meeting my personal rep at the bank next week to get pre-approval up to $600K for that IP.
They're all good investments whether they're IPs or PPOR. Property is property boys so can we just accept that they're both good and move on? I could even argue that CG from PPORs is likely to be better than IPs as they're in more desirable areas etc etc and above median prices etc etc but that's a whole other debate on the relative merits of certain classes of property...
Cheers,
Michael.