Something to ponder:
Couple A pick out a property they like, say $1m... Couple B buys it and rents it to Couple A.
At the same time Couple B pick out a property they like of similar value ... Couple A buys it and rents it back to them.
An agreement is signed such that say, in 5 years there will be a forced sale/buyback or whatever (or extension of the agreement) so that the ownership of the properties swaps at an agreed point in time.
Both couples are then living in the property that they want to live in but the costs (mortgage) are tax-deductable.
Disregarding the risks/ details of how the parties honour the agreement (or otherwise), and the details of how financial imbalance between the values of the two properties and loans is managed, is this legal? I cant see anything necessarily wrong occuring but it seems a bit obvious to me...?
Anyone doing this?
Sam
Couple A pick out a property they like, say $1m... Couple B buys it and rents it to Couple A.
At the same time Couple B pick out a property they like of similar value ... Couple A buys it and rents it back to them.
An agreement is signed such that say, in 5 years there will be a forced sale/buyback or whatever (or extension of the agreement) so that the ownership of the properties swaps at an agreed point in time.
Both couples are then living in the property that they want to live in but the costs (mortgage) are tax-deductable.
Disregarding the risks/ details of how the parties honour the agreement (or otherwise), and the details of how financial imbalance between the values of the two properties and loans is managed, is this legal? I cant see anything necessarily wrong occuring but it seems a bit obvious to me...?
Anyone doing this?
Sam