I have an economist friend who told me that investing in property is almost the same as investing in shares via a mutual fund. If you have a property that you rent, you own a business. Your business is simply to rent that property out to others.
The main difference is that shares in the general share market is often exposed to high technology that can produce greater profits from lower inputs. That is, due to continuing innovation from companies like e.g. Google, profits rise. This, according to the economist, is why expected returns from shares, as measured by economic indices like the S&P500 and the All Ords, is higher than the expected return from property. With property, at the end of the day you are only selling land. There is no innovation or technological improvement in that.
However, this is not a downside as it provides stability and steady growth.
Do you think this is a valid theory?
The main difference is that shares in the general share market is often exposed to high technology that can produce greater profits from lower inputs. That is, due to continuing innovation from companies like e.g. Google, profits rise. This, according to the economist, is why expected returns from shares, as measured by economic indices like the S&P500 and the All Ords, is higher than the expected return from property. With property, at the end of the day you are only selling land. There is no innovation or technological improvement in that.
However, this is not a downside as it provides stability and steady growth.
Do you think this is a valid theory?