Hi all,
Just out of curiosity. Does anyone know why in a 2 house front and rear survey strata arrangement the driveway is made a common property? I would have thought it would make more sense for the rear property to have sole ownership of the driveway? Is this a sub-division regulation?
An example: http://www.realestate.com.au/property-residential+land-wa-mount+pleasant-200910355
Thanks!
Andre
Just out of curiosity. Does anyone know why in a 2 house front and rear survey strata arrangement the driveway is made a common property? I would have thought it would make more sense for the rear property to have sole ownership of the driveway? Is this a sub-division regulation?
An example: http://www.realestate.com.au/property-residential+land-wa-mount+pleasant-200910355
Thanks!
Andre