A credible argument, but would the welfare burden be as great if there were higher rates of home ownership to begin with?
Just like the idea of house price growth that out paces inflation or changes in real wages, negative gearing as in incentive for speculative investment
in existing housing stock only makes it more difficult and I would argue, increases the future welfare burden
edit: and yes, there is nothing sinister about modest appreciation in house prices.
I think there is still a problem that if we're talking about affordability, we are (or at least should be) talking about the lower end (price wise) of the housing market. I believe abolishing negative gearing (existing properties or all), will not significantly, if at all, reduce property prices at this end of the market. Prospective owner-occupiers still have the same buying power, and many properties in this range would be closer to neutral or positive anyway, so it will not be impacting the investors position significantly. Abolishment of negative gearing may be favourable to buyers in the mid-upper price range where negative gearing has a higher impact (either lower yields, or similar yields on a much higher debt).
I'm also not convinced that abolishing negative gearing on existing homes, but still allowing it on new homes is going to make either the existing or new homes more affordable. The assumption is that investor demand for new property will increase for the tax incentive, which boost supply of new property and decrease demand for existing property? Once again we hit the problem that speculative investors are chasing capital growth, not cashflow. Regardless of the tax incentive, new property still depreciates faster than existing property, and you pay a premium to acquire it. Speculative investors will likely still compete for the existing property, because the cap growth is higher. Demand for new property will not increase, and the number of prospective owner-occupiers competing for a property is not going to decrease.
I re-iterate that speculative investment is driven by growth NOT cashflow. They aren't competing for low-growth, affordable, property.
As others have mentioned, the issue that the writer of the article has is not one of speculative investment, or a lack of affordable housing, it is that he wants to buy in an area that is above his price range (inner-city), and he has less money than others who want to buy in that area. We can only speculate as to whether this is because he and his girlfriend are on a lower income, or a similar income with higher expenses. If he can afford the lower-end of the "underquoted" inner-city properties, then if he was willing to look outside the inner city, he would easily be able to find 2 bedrooms that aren't "dives", and further out, even 3br houses would be affordable. Housing affordability should mean that buying a home somewhere should be affordable for most working people. Not that buying a home anywhere should be affordable for most working people. I also note that interestingly, he complains about "young first home buyers who are somewhat naive, attempting to enter the housing market with huge mortgages", or, to paraphrase "I'm sick and tired of my peers having higher incomes and better saving habits!"
Cheers