NCCP Act 2009: Lenders not permitted to 'call in' loans unless borrower is in default

Do you believe banks, using a regulated mortgage contract, can declare that a borrower has defaulted, and then repossess or force the sale of the property, simply because median house prices happened to fall?

If there is a condition of the contract, and the borrower is in default of that condition, and the borrower is unable to correct the default, then the usual remedies are available to the lender.

If we look at the CBA Terms and Conditions as an example, we have a very broad contractual term that requires that they be "reasonably satisfied with the value" of the security property. It follows that they have a right, subject to following the necessary procedural requirements, to repossess or require the contribution of funds should they be unhappy with the LVR.

If you have a CBA loan, you are potentially subject to a "margin call", for want of a better description.
 
I'm not going anywhere near the legal side of this but, while I accept that the banks MAY have a right to revalue, I just can't see it happening to any but a small number of "recalcitrant" borrowers.

To try to repossess thousands of properties the banks would just make their situation worse by shouting about the original problem from the rooftops. This of course would magnify any losses on their books.
 
If you have a CBA loan, you are potentially subject to a "margin call", for want of a better description.

The CBA T&C document linked earlier describes itself as loan information 'booklet' aimed at helping customers select a loan product. It is not an actual mortgage contract. It may include T&Cs that apply across a broad range of loans, and not every clause in the booklet would exist in every loan contract.

I have seen copies of actual CBA regulated mortgage contracts, and that clause (from the booklet) is not there.

Can you link to any actual regulated mortgage contracts with a clause that allows the lender to take action just because house prices fall? I don't believe such a clause exists in regulated mortgage contracts, and even if it did, I believe it would be unenforceable under the NCCP Act.
 
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http://www.lawhandbook.org.au/handbook/ch13s01s02.php#Ch126Se60778

Under section 88 of the NCC, the credit provider cannot issue legal proceedings or repossess or take any other enforcement action unless:

the debtor has defaulted (i.e. is behind in payments);
the credit provider has given to the debtor and guarantor, or posted to the debtor's and guarantor's last known address, a default notice allowing the debtor a period of at least 30 days to remedy the default (it is important for this reason to keep the credit provider informed in writing of any change of address); and
the account remains in default at the end of the notice period

At the end of the day, it doesn't really matter what clause a lender puts in its loan contract. The clause is not enforceable if it goes against the laws set out in the NCCP Act.
 
http://www.lawhandbook.org.au/handbook/ch13s01s02.php#Ch126Se60774

Unjust contracts — changes and charges

Sections 76 and 77 contain the NCC's version of statutory unconscionable conduct. These sections allow a court to grant relief to debtors from the consequences of entering into "unjust transactions". The provisions set out a two-step test.
STEP 1

Was the contract, mortgage or guarantee unjust at the time it was entered into or changed?

A definition of the term "unjust" is provided in section 76(8) of the NCC, which states that "unjust includes unconscionable, harsh or oppressive". This phrase, which has been adopted from the Contracts Review Act 1980 (NSW), has been dubbed the "tautological trinity": see West v AGC (Advances) Ltd (1986) 5 NSWLR 610 at 621 per McHugh JA.

The definition of unjust is wider than that of unconscionable conduct at common law and includes unconscionability: Maisano v Car and Home Finance Pty Ltd[2005] VCAT 1755 ("the Maisanocase"). The concept also includes both:

substantive unconscionability (i.e. the idea that the terms of the document itself are unconscionable); and
procedural unconscionability (i.e. the idea that the conduct of the parties at or prior to the time the transaction was entered into was unconscionable: see the Maisano case, above).

Further, the fact that a contract favours one party's rights over another (West v AGC (Advances) Ltd (1986) 5 NSWLR 610; Esanda Finance Corporation Ltd v Murphy (1989) ASC 55-703; Custom Credit Corporation Ltd v Lupi [1992] 1 VR 99; Custom Credit Corporation Ltd v Gray [1992] 1 VR 540), or that a contract fails to comply with the NCC (Custom Credit Corporation Ltd v Gray [1992] 1 VR 540; Morlend Finance Corporation (Vic) Pty Ltd v Westendorp [1993] 2 VR 284; Custom Credit Corporation Ltd v Lynch [1993] 2 VR 469; McKenzie v Smith (1998) ASC 155-025) will not, on their own, amount to unjust conduct.

When considering whether a transaction is unjust, a court must have regard to:

the public interest; and
all the circumstances of the case (s.76(2) NCC).

Note the two competing public interests of consumer protection and upholding bargains.

In addition, a court may have regard to:

the consequences of the parties complying or not complying with the provisions of the contract, mortgage or guarantee;
the relative bargaining power of the parties;
whether or not the parties could negotiate the terms of the contract, mortgage or guarantee at the time it was entered into or changed;
whether or not it was reasonably practicable for the applicant to negotiate changes to or reject any of the provisions of the contract, mortgage or guarantee or the change;
whether or not any of the provisions of the contract, mortgage or guarantee impose conditions that are unreasonably difficult to comply with or not reasonably necessary for the protection of the legitimate interests of a party;

I think it would be very difficult for a lender to argue that a borrower would not find it 'unreasonably difficult' to comply with a clause that requires house prices not to fall. Therefore, such a clause, even if it existed in a regulated mortgage contract, would not only be unenforceable, it would also render the contract unjust.

Which is probably why nobody can find a link to any regulated contract that includes such a clause...
 
It seems you beleive that 'default' is limited to being behind in repayments.

Being behind on repayments is the type of default that the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 states is necessary before a credit provider can issue legal proceedings or repossess or take any other enforcement action. I didn't add the bold section myself - I just highlighted it.

http://www.lawhandbook.org.au/handbook/ch13s01s02.php#Ch126Se60778

Under section 88 of the NCC, the credit provider cannot issue legal proceedings or repossess or take any other enforcement action unless:

the debtor has defaulted (i.e. is behind in payments);
the credit provider has given to the debtor and guarantor, or posted to the debtor's and guarantor's last known address, a default notice allowing the debtor a period of at least 30 days to remedy the default (it is important for this reason to keep the credit provider informed in writing of any change of address); and
the account remains in default at the end of the notice period
 
Being behind on repayments is the type of default that the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 states is necessary before a credit provider can issue legal proceedings or repossess or take any other enforcement action. .

I don't think this is the case.

Can you back up this with reference to primiary sources? ie legislation or caselaw.

It is easier to reference to the NCCP by using the Austlii verson
http://www.austlii.edu.au/au/legis/cth/consol_act/nccpa2009377/
 
Can you back up this with reference to primiary sources? ie legislation or caselaw

There wouldn't be any case law, because as far as I know, there is no regulated mortgage contract in Australia that includes such a clause, so the situation would never arise.

I believe the reason why no regulated contract includes such a clause may be because such a clause would render the contract unjust, under this section of the NCCP Act...

http://www.comlaw.gov.au/Details/C2010C00248

Matters to be considered by court

(2) In determining whether a term of a particular credit contract, mortgage or guarantee is unjust in the circumstances relating to it at the time it was entered into or changed, the court is to have regard to the public interest and to all the circumstances of the case and may have regard to the following:

...

(e) whether or not any of the provisions of the contract, mortgage or guarantee impose conditions that are unreasonably difficult to comply with, or not reasonably necessary for the protection of the legitimate interests of a party to the contract, mortgage or guarantee;

A clause that requires the borrower to ensure that house prices don't fall would undoubtedly be viewed by the courts as unjust. What do you think?
 
There wouldn't be any case law, because as far as I know, there is no regulated mortgage contract in Australia that includes such a clause, so the situation would never arise.

I believe the reason why no regulated contract includes such a clause may be because such a clause would render the contract unjust, under this section of the NCCP Act...



A clause that requires the borrower to ensure that house prices don't fall would undoubtedly be viewed by the courts as unjust. What do you think?

This doesn't answer my question though.

I want to know why do you think that the only way someone can default on their loan is by being behind in payments.
 
This doesn't answer my question though.

I want to know why do you think that the only way someone can default on their loan is by being behind in payments.

I don't think the only way someone can default on a loan is by being behind in payments. I have never claimed this to be the case.

However I do believe that banks are unable to repossess/call in/margin call borrowers on regulated mortgage contracts just because house prices happen to fall.

Can you not see the difference between the two?

Sure, there are lots of ways you can 'default' on the T&Cs of commercial various loan agreements.

But if you have a regulated mortgage contract, then house prices falling is not a type of 'default' that a bank can use to take action against a borrower.
 
However I do believe that banks are unable to repossess/call in/margin call borrowers on regulated mortgage contracts just because house prices happen to fall.
You seem to be very good at morphing your story as things progress e.g. the word "regulated" doesn't appear in the original statement you made on APF (or in your original post on this thread). You always move the goal posts which is why arguing with you is a waste of time.
 
You seem to be very good at morphing your story as things progress e.g. the word "regulated" doesn't appear in the original statement you made on APF (or in your original post on this thread). You always move the goal posts which is why arguing with you is a waste of time.

The vast majority of mortgages are regulated - I covered this in post number 5 of this thread. The thread is about the NCCP - i.e. the regulations.

Do you have a link to any regulated mortgage contracts with a clause that allows the lender to take action just because house prices fall?

Even if such a clause existed, do you believe it would be enforceable under the NCCP Act, which states that a contract is unjust if it imposes conditions that are unreasonably difficult to comply with?

I believe it would be unreasonably difficult for a borrower to comply with a condition that required house prices not to fall. What's your view on that?
 
You seem to be very good at morphing your story as things progress e.g. the word "regulated" doesn't appear in the original statement you made on APF (or in your original post on this thread). You always move the goal posts which is why arguing with you is a waste of time.

i think that's a bit harsh.

many times someone's argument is based in, or on, knowledge that key element(s), in this case "regulation", is implied.

cheers.
 
I believe it would be unreasonably difficult for a borrower to comply with a condition that required house prices not to fall. What's your view on that?

Suitable security is the key here......... ........certainly works for margin lends, not my area of expertise, I would have thought a margin lend is regulated by the NCCP.


ta

rolf
 
i think that's a bit harsh.
many times someone's argument is based in, or on, knowledge that key element(s), in this case "regulation", is implied.
If you read the ridiculous 13 page thread on APF where Shadow argues black and blue in circles, changing his angle every few posts you might think differently.
 
above you quoted a secondary document:

That document doesn't say that being behind in payments is the only way to default on the T&Cs of a commercial contract.

It says that being behind in payments is the only type of default that would permit a lender to take action to repossess/call in/margin call borrowers on NCCP regulated mortgage contracts.

There may be lots of other things that a lender decides to define as a 'default' in their contract - but they wouldn't all permit the lender to take action. A lender can put anything they want in a contract. They could put a clause in there stating that the borrower must eat six bananas a day. However, the clause would not be enforceable under the NCCP.
 
If you read the ridiculous 13 page thread on APF where Shadow argues black and blue in circles, changing his angle every few posts you might think differently.

My 'angle' has been consistent throughout the discussion on APF. I believe lenders are unable to take action against homeowners simply because house prices happened to fall. Sure, there may be a few unregulated loans out there that don't follow this rule, but there are exceptions to every rule.
 
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