Actually its the first valid point Non Recourse has raised.
In very simplistic terms (and please dont pick on the figures they are deliberately simplified to highlight the risk):
If banks allowed 95% lending with a 5% deposit on say 40% of gross wages, with interest rates of say 6% then a typical borrower on say $50,000 per year could support a loan of say $330,000. Add in the 5% deposit and it would support a home price of say around $347,000 with a deposit of $17,000
Now assume this scenario has been going for a while, so the market adapts to the scenario and the 'fair value' of the asset is $347000. But is this actually the fair value of the asset, or is it just the market accepted fair value due to the scenario?
If we permanantely change the scenario to say a 20% deposit and and 30% of gross wages: would the market fair value hold up? What happens to those marginal new borrowers that are now forced to save the additional 15% deposit and those borrowers that can only justify the transaction on a 40% gross wage and not 30%: they are excluded from demand.
This is already being seen in commercial property where capitilisation rates are on the increase which are leading to material writedowns in the appraised value of commercial property.
Now again i emphasise we dont know how the future will play out, and to make investment decisions based on speculated future inputs (either bullish or bearish) is foolish in my opinion.
Just as in prior times listening to 'blue sky' bulls, listening to current D&G'ers is also risky (as you can suffer from ananalys paralysis).
In very simplistic terms (and please dont pick on the figures they are deliberately simplified to highlight the risk):
If banks allowed 95% lending with a 5% deposit on say 40% of gross wages, with interest rates of say 6% then a typical borrower on say $50,000 per year could support a loan of say $330,000. Add in the 5% deposit and it would support a home price of say around $347,000 with a deposit of $17,000
Now assume this scenario has been going for a while, so the market adapts to the scenario and the 'fair value' of the asset is $347000. But is this actually the fair value of the asset, or is it just the market accepted fair value due to the scenario?
If we permanantely change the scenario to say a 20% deposit and and 30% of gross wages: would the market fair value hold up? What happens to those marginal new borrowers that are now forced to save the additional 15% deposit and those borrowers that can only justify the transaction on a 40% gross wage and not 30%: they are excluded from demand.
This is already being seen in commercial property where capitilisation rates are on the increase which are leading to material writedowns in the appraised value of commercial property.
Now again i emphasise we dont know how the future will play out, and to make investment decisions based on speculated future inputs (either bullish or bearish) is foolish in my opinion.
Just as in prior times listening to 'blue sky' bulls, listening to current D&G'ers is also risky (as you can suffer from ananalys paralysis).